On The Trail of Apostasia — The Sham Translation History

Did all the versions of the Bible have "departure" in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 for the translation of apostasia until the Rheims in 1582? Did the translators of the older versions mean physical departure when they used "departure"? Are the apostasy translations the result of a Catholic conspiracy to remove the rapture from 2 Thessalonians 2:3? Or is this account a sham history that is every bit as bogus as the arguments for the inerrancy of the KJV?For more information about Soothkeep, use the links below:

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