How does John 3.16 teach the Limited Atonement?

Frank White (rebukeandreprove) recently asserted that "If you do not understand how John 3:16 teaches limited atonement then Im afraid you are not even close to understanding what we mean by limited atonement. Not even close." He said this in response to me on https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-Ypa_mn9upo which is Kevin's upload of the Limited Atonement video he and I did.

Here is my upload here https://rumble.com/v4x3q4q-limited-atonement-what-is-it-and-what-is-wrong-with-it.html

He gives no explanation for his assertion, as is his usual tactic. He operates just like all cultists (including outspoken atheists) do. He has zero argument. Only assertion and accusation.

I imagine that he is assuming (like Limitarians HAVE TO) that LA includes application not just intent and extent as it was designed to convey.

Here are some questions for people like Frank. What is the term for Christ only saving the elect (as defined by Calvinism)? What is the term for Christ dying only for the elect (as defined by Calvinism)?

I bet your answer is "Limited Atonement" for both. And that is your right. But how can you have an honest conversation with me when I separate them? How can you have a logical conversation on the two separate topics if you conflate them (as you must)?